zbalz
November 12th, 2000, 08:00 PM
I am reading the Tuning section (along with all the extra links) in chapter five. I never knew that music got so deep...as into mathematics! However I don't quite understand what exactly "dead in tune is".
1)For example (based on Stephen Bicknell's article SD has as a link from the Chapter 5 tunings page) the 17th century meantone temperment has all the thirds perfectly in tune.Being that we work in an equal temperment phase today where everything is slightly out of tune...how do we know what is IN tune? Who...over time...determined what is IN tune and what isn't.
2)Also in the meantone era, assuming someone wanted to play a score in G flat...were they just like, "Oh crap...theres no such thing as G flat right now because we tuned it out so I guess I'll just use something else."? Or was it that the style of music of that time didn't call for those notes.
3)Anyone really know why all these guys in the past didn't use equal temperment? Or if composers today know they are not playing in a certain key (that that style of temperment excludes); do they deliberately tune in a different temperment to make their music sound more pure?
4)Also a quick question on modulation. Do most songs actually follow smooth transition shown by the circle of 5ths. For example, SD mentions for the smoothest transition from C..one should go to G..then D...etc. However, I was taking a look at stairway to heaven by led zeppelin and they seem to go from the chords D to Fmaj7 to C which doesn't follow the circle of 5ths idea (i think) but still sounds like a smooth change.
5) According to the circle of 5ths...12 5ths equals 7 octaves....similarly..if going counterclockwise...shouldnt 12 4ths equal 7 octaves? however it is closer to 5 octaves.
5th=702 cents. 4th=498 cents. octave=1200 cents.
1200 x 7 = 8400 cents
702 x 12 = 8424 cents (equals when temperment applied)
yet. 498 x 12 = 5976...closer to 5 octaves.
Why is this so when on the circle of 5ths it seems different. Also, this may seem stupid, but how come equal temperament doesn't divide the cents out through 4ths rather than 5ths.
:http://www.zentao.com/ubb/smilies/biggrin.gifeep breath:: Thats it for now...sorry for all the questions. I have a feeling some of these questions will be answered further in the lessons or on the supplimentary material which I havent finished. If so, please state that.
Thanks
-zbalz
[This message has been edited by zbalz (edited November 13, 2000).]
1)For example (based on Stephen Bicknell's article SD has as a link from the Chapter 5 tunings page) the 17th century meantone temperment has all the thirds perfectly in tune.Being that we work in an equal temperment phase today where everything is slightly out of tune...how do we know what is IN tune? Who...over time...determined what is IN tune and what isn't.
2)Also in the meantone era, assuming someone wanted to play a score in G flat...were they just like, "Oh crap...theres no such thing as G flat right now because we tuned it out so I guess I'll just use something else."? Or was it that the style of music of that time didn't call for those notes.
3)Anyone really know why all these guys in the past didn't use equal temperment? Or if composers today know they are not playing in a certain key (that that style of temperment excludes); do they deliberately tune in a different temperment to make their music sound more pure?
4)Also a quick question on modulation. Do most songs actually follow smooth transition shown by the circle of 5ths. For example, SD mentions for the smoothest transition from C..one should go to G..then D...etc. However, I was taking a look at stairway to heaven by led zeppelin and they seem to go from the chords D to Fmaj7 to C which doesn't follow the circle of 5ths idea (i think) but still sounds like a smooth change.
5) According to the circle of 5ths...12 5ths equals 7 octaves....similarly..if going counterclockwise...shouldnt 12 4ths equal 7 octaves? however it is closer to 5 octaves.
5th=702 cents. 4th=498 cents. octave=1200 cents.
1200 x 7 = 8400 cents
702 x 12 = 8424 cents (equals when temperment applied)
yet. 498 x 12 = 5976...closer to 5 octaves.
Why is this so when on the circle of 5ths it seems different. Also, this may seem stupid, but how come equal temperament doesn't divide the cents out through 4ths rather than 5ths.
:http://www.zentao.com/ubb/smilies/biggrin.gifeep breath:: Thats it for now...sorry for all the questions. I have a feeling some of these questions will be answered further in the lessons or on the supplimentary material which I havent finished. If so, please state that.
Thanks
-zbalz
[This message has been edited by zbalz (edited November 13, 2000).]